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ASHRM CPHRM Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Claims and Litigation: This domain focuses on handling potential claims and legal cases, including claim reporting, litigation support, legal documentation management, and analyzing claims data to understand risk exposure.
Topic 2
  • Clinical
  • Patient Safety: This domain focuses on improving patient safety by promoting a safety culture, managing incident reporting, educating staff and patients, addressing ethical concerns, and implementing corrective actions to reduce risks and prevent harm.
Topic 3
  • Risk Financing: This domain covers managing financial risks through insurance programs, claims coordination, loss analysis, and developing strategies to reduce financial exposure.
Topic 4
  • Healthcare Operations: This domain involves managing operational risk activities such as conducting risk assessments, developing policies, coordinating risk programs, supervising staff, and supporting patient safety initiatives.
Topic 5
  • Legal and Regulatory: This domain focuses on ensuring compliance with healthcare laws and regulations, protecting patient information, managing reporting requirements, and supporting accreditation and regulatory responses.

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ASHRM Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Sample Questions (Q75-Q80):

NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following can be considered evidence in a malpractice claim?
* photographs of injuries
* thank you note from the patient to the physician
* patient journal of the hospital stay
* gift from the patient to a volunteer

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, evidence in a malpractice claim includes any relevant material that may help establish facts related to duty, breach, causation, or damages. Photographs of injuries are routinely admissible as demonstrative or documentary evidence to illustrate the nature and extent of harm. A thank you note from a patient to a physician may be introduced to reflect the patient's contemporaneous perception of care, credibility, or satisfaction at a particular time, depending on context. A patient's personal journal documenting experiences during hospitalization may also be considered evidence, particularly if it describes symptoms, interactions, or emotional distress relevant to damages.
A gift from a patient to a volunteer, however, is generally not probative of negligence or injury unless directly tied to issues of undue influence or misconduct. In typical malpractice litigation, such a gift does not establish standard of care, breach, or damages and would not ordinarily be considered relevant evidence.
Claims and litigation objectives emphasize careful documentation, preservation of relevant materials, and coordination with counsel regarding evidentiary matters. Therefore, photographs, written communications, and patient journals may be considered evidence in a malpractice claim.


NEW QUESTION # 76
If an at-risk patient is left unattended and has an adverse response to medication, this is best classified as:

Answer: D

Explanation:
Leaving an at-risk patient unattended during/after medication administration is typically anactive failure occurring at thesharp end-the point of direct care delivery. Active errors are the observable actions
/omissions by frontline personnel that can immediately contribute to harm (e.g., failure to monitor sedation, failure to reassess after opioids). Risk management objectives, however, require looking beyond the individual act: Was staffing insufficient? Was monitoring policy unclear? Were alarms ineffective? Was there inadequate training or workload overload? Those "blunt end" conditions create latent risk that increases the likelihood of sharp-end failures. Proper classification helps organizations respond with systems fixes (monitoring standards, escalation triggers, staffing acuity tools, continuous pulse oximetry/capnography policies where appropriate) rather than blaming individuals alone.


NEW QUESTION # 77
A claims manager needs to open a loss reserve and perform an investigation of an event. They review the patient demographics, the nature and extent of the injury, and other liability factors. Which of the following would be helpful to the claims manager in determining a loss reserve?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Within Health Care Risk Management practice as outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, establishing an accurate loss reserve requires an estimation of the probable financial exposure associated with a claim. A loss reserve represents the anticipated cost to resolve a claim, including indemnity payments and defense expenses.
Comparable verdicts in the county are particularly useful because they reflect jurisdiction-specific jury tendencies, local legal climate, and historical award patterns. Venue significantly influences claim valuation, as jury awards can vary substantially between counties and states. Reviewing similar case outcomes allows the claims manager to benchmark potential settlement or verdict ranges based on injury severity and liability factors.
The surgery center's claims history may inform overall risk trends but does not directly determine the value of a specific claim. The patient's total medical bills are relevant but represent only one component of damages and do not account for non-economic damages such as pain and suffering. The insurance limit per occurrence defines maximum exposure but does not guide the realistic reserve estimate unless damages approach policy limits.
Therefore, analysis of comparable local verdicts is most helpful in establishing an appropriate and defensible loss reserve.


NEW QUESTION # 78
An employer is not required to offer a reasonable accommodation to a job applicant with a qualified disability unless

Answer: C

Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles aligned with ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act ADA requires employers to provide reasonable accommodations to qualified individuals with disabilities. However, the obligation to provide accommodation is generally triggered when the applicant or employee makes the employer aware of the need for accommodation.
The interactive process required by the ADA begins once the applicant requests an accommodation or discloses a need related to a disability. Employers are not required to speculate about potential disabilities or initiate accommodations without notice. While documentation may be requested to verify the disability in certain circumstances, proof is not the triggering requirement. Instead, the request itself initiates the employer' s duty to engage in good faith discussion to determine reasonable accommodation.
Withholding accommodation that creates an unsafe condition may raise separate workplace safety concerns, but that is not the threshold requirement under the ADA. Similarly, an employer's recognition alone does not automatically impose an obligation absent a request or clear disclosure.
Legal and regulatory objectives emphasize proper documentation, consistent application of ADA standards, and engagement in the interactive process once accommodation is requested. Therefore, the employer's duty arises when the applicant requests the accommodation.


NEW QUESTION # 79
An unstable patient in the emergency department needs transfer to another hospital. Which of the following statements is true regarding the refusal of an on-call physician to treat this patient?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, obligations under the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act EMTALA govern on-call physician responsibilities. When a hospital maintains an on-call roster to provide specialty services for emergency department patients, physicians listed on call are required to respond and participate in the evaluation and stabilization of patients with emergency medical conditions.
An on-call physician may only be relieved of duty if legitimately unavailable due to circumstances beyond their control, such as actively caring for another patient or being otherwise unable to respond in accordance with hospital policy. Refusal to treat for convenience or non-clinical reasons may constitute an EMTALA violation and expose both the hospital and physician to regulatory penalties.
A blanket right to refuse care is inconsistent with EMTALA requirements. While financial discrimination is prohibited, refusal for other non-justifiable reasons may still violate federal law. Conversely, stating that a physician is never relieved of duty is inaccurate, as legitimate unavailability may excuse performance under specific circumstances.
Legal and regulatory objectives emphasize compliance with EMTALA, proper on-call coverage policies, and documentation of availability. Therefore, the correct statement is that relief occurs only when the physician is unavailable due to circumstances outside their control.


NEW QUESTION # 80
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